Hi
Generally, do drugs that are given intravenously enter breastmilk in a higher concentration than if the drug was given orally because when given intravenously the drug bypasses the barriers of the mother’s GIT to enter the breastmilk more quickly and at higher levels?
However, if morphine is given intravenously then is it in a form that wouldn't be absorbed well orally and hence even more of it reaches the baby through a mother's breastmilk (as compared to morphine given to the mother orally), the baby would get less because it is in a form that is not as highly orally available?
So if the above is true, then if morphine is given to a mother in its oral form, then would more or less reach the baby through her breastmilk as compared to if morphine is given intravenously?
Thank you
Generally, do drugs that are given intravenously enter breastmilk in a higher concentration than if the drug was given orally because when given intravenously the drug bypasses the barriers of the mother’s GIT to enter the breastmilk more quickly and at higher levels?
However, if morphine is given intravenously then is it in a form that wouldn't be absorbed well orally and hence even more of it reaches the baby through a mother's breastmilk (as compared to morphine given to the mother orally), the baby would get less because it is in a form that is not as highly orally available?
So if the above is true, then if morphine is given to a mother in its oral form, then would more or less reach the baby through her breastmilk as compared to if morphine is given intravenously?
Thank you
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